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Food Technology Quiz Que and Answers. DU Entrance Exam 2021

23/07/2022
Food Technologist

M Sc food and nutrition Entrance Exam – 2021 Delhi University

Article Outline

Subject : Biochemistry

Que 1 : Select the set of amino acids having only non-polar, aliphatic R groups.
    1. Cysteine, Glutamine, Tyrosine
    2. Leucine, Methionine, Valine
    3. Proline, Aspartic acid, Serine
    4. Valine, Serine, Glutamic acid
Que 2 : Which of the following initiates a guanine nucleotide amplification cascade during visual cycle?
    1. Lumirhodopsin
    2. Metarhodopsin III 
    3. Metarhodopsin II
    4. Metarhodopsin I
Que 3 : Which of the following factors is not responsible for the denaturation of proteins?
    1. Heat
    2. Charge of the protein
    3. Organic solvents
    4. pH change
Que 4 : Which of the following statements regarding peptide bond is true?
    1. Peptide bond is more stable in cis configuration than in trans configuration
    2. The amide nitrogen of the peptide bond has a partial negative charge
    3. The carbonyl oxygen of the peptide bond has a partial negative charge
    4. The carbonyl oxygen of the peptide bond has a partial positive charge 
Que 5 : The molecular formulae of Erythrose and Ribose are …… and …….. respectively.
    1. C3H6O6, C5H10O5
    2. C4H10O4, C5H12O5
    3. C4H8O4, C5H10O5
    4. C5H10O5, C4H8O4
Que 6 : Which set of fatty acids shows arrangement order from lowest melting point to highest?
  1. arachidonic acid <  linolenic acid < oleic acid <  myristic acid < stearic acid 
  2. arachidonic acid <  linolenic acid < oleic acid < stearic acid < myristic acid  
  3. linolenic acid < arachidonic acid < oleic acid <  myristic acid < stearic acid 
  4. linolenic acid < arachidonic acid < oleic acid <  stearic acid < myristic acid 
Que 7 : All allosteric enzymes have
    1. Active site only
    2. Allosteric site only
    3. Both active site and allosteric site
    4. Neither active site nor allosteric site
Que 8 : Phosphorylation dephosphorylation covalent modification of enzymes plays important role in glycogenolysis. All of the following leads to enzyme activation in this except
    1. Dephosphorylation of glycogen synthase
    2. Phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase
    3. Phosphorylation of phosphorylase kinase
    4. Phosphorylation of protein kinase A 
Que 9 : Which of the following enzyme steps from glycolysis is performed by a different enzyme in gluconeogenesis?
    1. Enolase
    2. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
    3. Phospho-fructo-kinase
    4. Phosphohexose  isomerase 
Que 10 : Which of the following is true about secondary protein structure?
  1. Secondary structure is the local spatial arrangement of the main chain atoms in a selected segment of polypeptide chain.
  2. All polypeptides can form stable αhelix.
  3. The proline residue introduces a stabilizing kink in the αhelix.
  4. The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A and C 
  2. A and D 
  3. A, B and D 
  4. B and C 
Que 11 : Which of the following occurs during glycolysis? 
  1. Conversion of fructose 1,6 bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
  2. An aldolase-ketose isomerization step
  3. Pyruvate, NADH and ATP are produced
  4. Two net molecules of ATP are produced through substrate level phosphorylation

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. A and B 
    2. B and C 
    3. B, C and D
    4. C and D 
Que 12 : Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A : Glycolysis in erythrocytes always terminates with the formation of lactate.

Reason R : This is because the subsequent reactions of pyruvate oxidation are mitochondrial and erythrocytes have few mitochondria. 

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. A is false but R is true 
    2. A is true but R is false
    3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 
    4. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 
Que 13 : Isomerization of citrate to isocitrate by the enzyme aconitase involves two steps:
    1. Condensation and hydration
    2. Dehydration of cisaconitate and rehydration to isocitrate
    3. Isomerization to cisaconitate and rehydration to isocitrate
    4. Rehydration of cisaconitate and dehydration to isocitrate
Que 14 : During aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose, 32 molecules of ATP are produced, out of which
    1. All are produced inside mitochondria
    2. Four are produced inside mitochondria and twenty eight are produced outside mitochondria
    3. Four are produced outside mitochondria and twenty eight are produced inside mitochondria
    4. Two are produced outside mitochondria and thirty are produced inside mitochondria
Que 15 : Which of the following vitamin is necessary for the TCA cycle?
    1. Biotin
    2. Thiamine
    3. Vitamin A
    4. Vitamin E
Que 16 : Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : The Krebs cycle provides substrates for gluconeogenesis and transamination. Reason R : This is because during oxidation of acetylCoA through Krebs cycle coenzymes are reduced and subsequently reoxidized in the respiratory chain. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
    1. A is false but R is true 
    2. A is true but R is false 
    3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 
    4. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Que 17 : Which of the following enzyme does not take part in the TCA cycle?
    1. Citrate synthase
    2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
    3. Malate dehydrogenase
    4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
Que 18 : Starting with Ornithine transcarbamoylase reaction, the order in which intermediates in the urea cycle would be occur
    1. argininosuccinate, arginine, citrulline, ornithine
    2. argininosuccinate, citrulline, arginine, ornithine
    3. citrulline, arginine, argininosuccinate, ornithine
    4. citrulline, argininosuccinate, arginine, ornithine
Que 19 : A second amino group is transferred to citrulline from……
    1. Alanine
    2. Aspartate
    3. Glutamate
    4. Tyrosine
Que 20 : The enzyme just preceding thiolase in βoxidation of fatty acids is
  1. 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase
  2. 3-ketoacylCoA dehydrogenase
  3. AcylCoA dehydrogenase
  4. EnoylCoA hydratase
Que 21 : Overproduction of ketone bodies is often seen during starvation due to 
  1. Overproduction of acetyl CoA
  2. Increased rate of fatty acid oxidation
  3. Increased synthesis of fatty acid
  4. Increased rate of glycolysis 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only 
  2. A and C only 
  3. B and D only 
  4. C and D only 
Que 22 : The high energy cost of gluconeogenesis is majorly met by
  1. Beta oxidation of fatty acids
  2. Breakdown of amino acids
  3. Citric acid cycle
  4. Degradation of glycogen
Que 23 : The allosteric activator of liver glutamate dehydrogenase enzyme is
  1. ADP
  2. ATP
  3. GTP
  4. NADH
Que 24 : Mark the correct statements about glycogen metabolism.
  1. In muscle in the fasting state, glycogen is broken down to glucose 6 phosphate, then free glucose.
  2. Glucagon inhibits the synthesis of glycogen. 
  3. Phosphorylation activates protein kinase A during glycogen degradation
  4. Insulin inhibits the synthesis of glycogen.

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A and C 
    2. B and C 
    3. B only 
    4. C and D
Que 25 : Match List I  with List II
List 1 List 2
Hormone Effect
Insulin Hepatic glucogenolysis only 
glucagon calcium homeostatis
epinephrine muscle and liver glucogenolysis
parathyroid decreased ketogenesis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A- I, B -IV, C- II, D- III
    2. A- III, B- I, C- IV, D- II
    3. A- III, B -II, C- I, D- IV
    4. A -IV, B- I, C- III, D- II
Que 26 : Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List 1 List 2
Metabolic pathway         Enzyme
ketogenesis glycerol kinase
beta oxidation acyl- COA dehydrogenase
gluconeogenesis 3-hydroxy-3- methylgluteryl-COA
glycogen metabolism glucan transferase
  1. A- I, B -IV, C- II, D- III
  2. A- III, B- I, C- IV, D- II
  3. A- III, B- II, C- I, D- IV
  4. A- IV, B- I, C- III, D- II
Que 27 : Which of the following is not formed during synthesis of biologically active form of vitamin D ?
  1. 24-hydroxycholecalciferol
  2. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
  3. Calcitriol
  4. Cholecalciferol
Que 28 : Beta carotene is found in plants foods. It is cleaved in the intestine by carotene dioxygenase to produce__________.
  1. Carotene
  2. Retinal
  3. Retinol
  4. Vitamin A
Que 29 : Match List I with List II
List 1 List 2
Enzyme                Reaction type
Alpha – ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex Substrate level phosphorylation
Succinate thiokinase hydration
Citrate synthase Oxidative decarboxylation
fumarase condensation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A- I, B- IV, C- II, D- III
  2. A-III, B- I, C- IV, D- II
  3. A III, B II, C I, D IV
  4. A IV, B I, C III, D II
Que 30 : Which of the following reacts with opsin forming rhodopsin in visual cycle?
  1. 11-cis-retinaldehyde
  2. All-trans-retinol
  3. 11-cis-retinol
  4. All-trans-retinaldehyde
Que 31 : Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A : Transamination reactions are involved in amino acid biosynthesis and catabolism of proteins. 

Reason R : This is because these reactions are readily reversible.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A is false but R is true 
  2. A is true but R is false 
  3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 
  4. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 
Que 32 : The majority of storage of iron (ferritin) occurs in which part of the body?
  1. Gall bladder
  2. Liver
  3. Muscle
  4. Stomach
Que 33 : Which of the following is the omega-3 fatty acid
  1. Arachadonic acid
  2. Linoleic acid
  3. Linolenic acid
  4. Oleic acid
Que 34 : Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Micronutrients especially B vitamins helps the body to utilise energy Reason R : B vitamins functions as coenzymes and participates in energy metabolism.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A is false but R is true 
  2. A is true but R is false 
  3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  4. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 
Que 35 : Iodine value measures
  1. Amount of carbon present
  2. Degree of saturation
  3. Degree of unsaturation
  4. Number of iodine present

Subject : Therapeutic nutrition

Que 36 : Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R 

Assertion A : A fibre rich diet helps in lowering post prandial blood glucose level and cholesterol levels.

Reason R : Soluble fibre acts as physical barrier between food and enzymes and also binds faecal bile acids.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A is false but R is true 
  2. A is true but R is false 
  3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 
  4. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 
Que 37 : A patient has been advised to follow a low saturated fat diet to help reduce the risk of heart disease. Which of the following foods would most likely be recommended as part of this meal plan?
  1. Baked potato topped with chili and margarine
  2. Meat curry made with ghee and whole coconut milk
  3. Organ meats and egg
  4. Pomfret (white) and vegetables sautéed with olive oil
 Que 38 : Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. DASH diet emphasizes mainly on low salt intake
  2. DASH diet emphasizes on increase in low fat dairy products, fruits and vegetables Consumption
  3. DASH diet emphasizes on reduction in sweets and red meat consumption
  4. DASH diet is used for prevention of hypertension
Que 39 : Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. Monomeric formulas contain free amino acids, glucose, medium chain triglycerides and/or essential fatty acids
  2. Oligomeric formulas are given to patients suffering from digestion and absorption problems or pancreatic enzymatic insufficiency
  3. Polymeric formula is composed of complete protein, polysaccharides, and fat as Medium chain fatty acids
  4. Polymeric formulas are nutritionally complete and given to patients with nonfunctional gastro-intestinal system
Que 40 : As per Adult Treatment Panel III (ATP III) classification the desirable    level of cholesterol in the serum is
  1. < 200 mg/dl 
  2. < 220 mg/dl 
  3. < 240 mg/dl 
  4. < 260 mg/dl 
Que 41 : In patients with severe diarrhoea, which types of foods are usually suggested initially?
  1. High fibre and high residue foods
  2. High residue and low fibre foods
  3. Low fibre and high residue foods
  4. Low fibre and low residue foods
Que 42 : Conversion of beta carotene to retinol is primarily affected in the following disease condition
  1. Diarrhoea
  2. HIV AIDS
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Typhoid

Subject : Research methodology

Que 43 : Which of the following is not a limitation of the focus group method?
  1. It produces a large volume of data that can be difficult to analyse
  2. It reveals the way social meanings are jointly constructed
  3. People in groups tend to agree and express socially desirable views
  4. The researcher has little control over how the discussion proceeds
Que 44 : A research study intends to access the awareness of consumers about food fortification. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?
  1. Descriptive method
  2. Experimental method
  3. Ex-post facto method
  4. Historical method
Que 45 : In order to pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?
  1. Deciding about the data analysis procedure
  2. Developing a research design
  3. Formulating a research hypothesis
  4. Formulating a research question
Que 46 : Which of the following does not correspond to the characteristics of research?
  1. Research is logical
  2. Research is not a process
  3. Research is not passive
  4. Research is systematic
 Que 47 : What does the term ‘reliability’ indicate?
  1. That the researcher can be trusted.
  2. That the results can be statistically proved
  3. That the tool of data collection can be regarded as measuring consistently
  4. We can say that the research has being carried out to according to the research design
Que 48 : Researchers use both open ended and closed ended questions to collect data. Which of the following statements is true?
  1. Closed ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words
  2. Closed ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own words 
  3. Open ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s Pre-determined response categories
  4. Open ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words

Subject Name : Public health nutrition

Que 49 : Which of the following statements are incorrect?
  1. Macrocytic anemia generally is caused by either folate or vitamin B12 deficient erythropoiesis. 
  2. Ferritin is the storage protein that stores iron
  3. Microcytic anemia is associated most often with folic acid deficiency.
  4. Transferrin is a globulin protein that transports calcium to the bone marrow. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Options:-

  1. A and B only 
  2. A and C only 
  3. B and D only 
  4. C and D only 
Que 50 : Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. High protein diet have been found to cure and prevent pellagra
  2. Niacin deficiency results in Casal’s Necklace
  3. Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) participates in the carbohydrate metabolism
  4. Wernicke Korsakoff Syndrome is also known as wet beriberi
Que 51 : Which dietary assessment method determines nutrient intake by asking how often certain foods are consumed?
  1. 24-hour dietary recall
  2. Diet History
  3. Food balance sheet
  4. Food frequency 
Que 52 : A common anthropometric measure for infants is:
  1. Laying height 
  2. Recumbent length
  3. Sitting height
  4. Standing height
Que 53 : As per NFHS 4, prevalence of anaemia among children aged 6-59 months in India is
  1.  65.0 percent
  2.  50.5 percent
  3. 58.6 percent
  4. 45.5 percent
 Que 54 : Which of the following statements are correct about the Mid-day meal scheme?
  1. In drought affected areas, midday meals shall be supplied even during summer vacations 
  2. The scheme has been initiated under the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NPNSPE)
  3. Under this program, a cooked midday meal with 700 calories and 20 grams of protein is provided to all children enrolled in classes one to five
  4. The Midday Meal Scheme is covered by the National Food Security Act, 2013

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:-

  1. A, B and C only 
  2. A, B and D only 
  3. A, C and D only 
  4. B, C and D only 
Que 55 : The target reduction of low birth weight per annum under the National Nutrition Mission is
  1. 1 percent
  2. 2 percent
  3. 3 percent
  4. 5 percent
Que 56 : Namit is 36 months old boy who is brought to a health facility with the complaint of swelling in both legs. His anthropometric assessment reveals his weight for height was below 3SD and MUAC less than 115 mm. Which condition is he most likely to suffer from?
  1. Dehydration
  2. Obesity
  3. Severe acute malnutrition
  4. Typhoid 

Subject Name : Food science

Que 57 : Which of the following is not a preservation factor?
  1. Heat
  2. Mechanical damage
  3. Radiation
  4. Restricted oxygen 
Que 58 : The minimum MSNF of Skim milk should be as follows :
  1. 5.2%
  2. 6.5 %
  3. 7.2 %
  4. 8.7% 
Que 59 : Toxic constituents of pulses that possess the property of producing lather or foam when shaken with water is
  1. Cyanogenic glycoside
  2. Haemagglutinins
  3. Saponins
  4. Trypsin inhibitor
Ques 60 : Which of the following foods does not contain gluten? 
  1. Wheat flour
  2. Rice flour
  3. Gram flour 
  4. Corn flour 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only 
  2. B, C and D only 
  3. C, D and A only 
  4. D, A and B only 
Que 61 : Blanching of fruits and vegetables cannot be used to
  1. Destroy all pathogens
  2. Improves colour
  3. Inactivate enzymes
  4. Reduces surface contamination 
Ques 61:- Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

List 1 List 2
Betalains Tomato
chlorophyll beetroot
lycopene red pepper
capsanthin spinach
  1. A- I, B- II, C- III, D- IV
  2. A- I, B III, C II, D IV
  3. A -II, B- IV, C- I, D- III
  4. A- IV, B- I, C-III, D-II
Que 62 : The active principal in garlic is
  1. Allicin
  2. Capsaicin
  3. Eugenol
  4. Gingerol
Que 63 : Which enzyme is involved in browning of the cut surfaces of potatoes?
  1. Amylase
  2. Lipase
  3. Polyphenol oxidase
  4. Protease
Que 64 : Which chemical component, produced as a result of certain acid producing microorganism, is responsible for the delicate desirable flavor and aroma of butter?
  1. Acetic acid
  2. Diacetyl
  3. Ethanol
  4. Trimethylamine
Que 65 : Which one of the following reactions is not resulted from sugars?
  1. Caramelization
  2. Crystallization
  3. Gelation
  4. Maillard reaction
Que 66 : Which one of the following acts as a bleaching agent as well as improver for wheat flour?
  1. Ascorbic acid
  2. Azodicarbonamide
  3. Benzoyl peroxide
  4. Chlorine dioxide
Que 68 : Tenderization of meat can be achieved by which enzyme
  1. Amylase
  2. Cellulase
  3. Lipoxygenase
  4. Papain
Que 68 : When egg is cooked _____ gets completely destroyed
  1. Avidin
  2. Fat
  3. Iron
  4. Protein
Que 69 : The phosphoprotein which is precipitated from raw milk at pH 4.6 is
  1. Albumin 
  2. Casein
  3. Lactalbumin
  4. Lactoglobulin
Que 70 :Process responsible for the staling of bread is
  1. Gelatinization
  2. Hydrolysis of starch
  3. Lipolysis
  4. Retrogradation
Ques 71 : Match List I with List II
List 1 List 2
Milk Rigor Mortis
Apple Millard Reaction
Egg Gelatization
Meat Pouching
Cereal Browning reaction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A- I, B- III, C- IV, D- V, E- II
  2. A- II, B- V, C- IV, D- I, E- III
  3. A- IV, B- V, C- III, D- I, E-II
  4. A- III, B- I, C- II, D- IV, E-V
Que 72 : The pectin present in fruit is useful for the production of
  1. Pickles
  2. Jams
  3. Jelly
  4. Crystallised fruits

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and D only 
  2. A and B only 
  3. B and C only 
  4. C and D only 
Ques 73 : When wheat is converted to maida,_______________ is lost
  1. Fat
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Protein
  4. Thiamin
Ques 74 : Name the enzyme responsible for coagulation of milk in cheese manufacture
  1. Amylase
  2. Lipase
  3. Pepsin
  4. Rennin
Que 75 : Winterization is associated with which processing method?
  1. Emulsion
  2. Milling of rice
  3. Parboiling of rice
  4. Refining of oil
Information Collected By

Samriti JainSamriti Jain

She is pursuing her Master’s in Food and Nutrition from the Delhi University. She secured AIR 7 in DUET.

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